I will maintain that it should not be written this way, it is misleading and confusing . Maybe it they write that " when subjects were frequently awakened right after REM began they reported having significantly fewer dreams and those they had were fragmented comparing " it would make more sense because the thing is that most people who sleep through all sleep stages don't even remember their dreams so they think they don't dream at all and when they are awakened during REM they know that they were having a dream and can state it while if they would not be awakened at all they would mostly say they did not dreamed at all. So I don't think that this sentence -the way how it is written- make a sense. Again like the book says: Even those who claim they never dream will, 80 percent of the time, recall a dream after being awakened during REM sleep so how can they say they are having fewer dreams if they don't remember having them while sleeping normally in the first place?
Anyway- thanks for the answer.
Anyway- thanks for the answer.